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NEW QUESTION # 139
A network manager wants to protect the company's VPN by implementing multifactor authentication that uses:
- Something you know
- Something you have
- Something you are
Which of the following would accomplish the manager's goal?
- A. Password, authentication token, thumbprint
- B. Domain name, PKI, GeolP lookup
- C. VPN IP address, company ID, facial structure
- D. Company URL, TLS certificate, home address
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 140
Which of the following is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure?
- A. RPO
- B. SDLC
- C. DRP
- D. IRP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. A DRP typically includes the following elements:
A risk assessment that identifies the potential threats and impacts to the organization's critical assets and processes.
A business impact analysis that prioritizes the recovery of the most essential functions and data.
A recovery strategy that defines the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team, the resources and tools needed, and the steps to follow to restore the system.
A testing and maintenance plan that ensures the DRP is updated and validated regularly. A DRP is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure, as it provides a clear and structured framework for recovering from a disaster and minimizing the downtime and data loss. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325.
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system?
- A. SNMP
- B. SIEM
- C. DLP
- D. IDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page
393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.
NEW QUESTION # 142
A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:
- Provide a secure zone.
- Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
- Reduce the scope of threats.
Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?
- A. Zero Trust
- B. CIA
- C. AAA
- D. Non-repudiation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access.
Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.
NEW QUESTION # 143
A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, the manager notices that the domain's URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following security practices helped the manager to identify the attack?
- A. URL scanning
- B. End user training
- C. Policy review
- D. Plain text email
Answer: B
Explanation:
The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training.
Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hovering over links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization's security awareness program.
End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, including suspicious emails and phishing attempts.
Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help in identifying specific attacks.
URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.
Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification in this case was due to user awareness.
NEW QUESTION # 144
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network. Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
- A. Web-based administration
- B. Routing protocols
- C. Console access
- D. VLANs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods. Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router's settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs).
NEW QUESTION # 145
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
- A. Performing code signing on company-developed software
- B. Ensuring secure cookies are use
- C. Performing static code analysis on the software
- D. Testing input validation on the user input fields
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 146
An organization is building a new backup data center with cost-benefit as the primary requirement and RTO and RPO values around two days. Which of the following types of sites is the best for this scenario?
- A. Hot
- B. Warm
- C. Cold
- D. Real-time recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Warm Sites
- Not fully equipped, but fundamentals in place
- Can be up and running within a few days
- Cheaper than hot sites but with a slight delay
Cold Sites
- Fewer facilities than warm sites
- May be just an empty building, ready in 1-2 months
- Cost-effective but adds more recovery time
NEW QUESTION # 147
A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based. Which of the following meets these requirements?
- A. Type 1 hvpervisor
- B. SD-WAN
- C. Serverless framework
- D. SDN
Answer: C
Explanation:
A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.
A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.
SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].
NEW QUESTION # 148
An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted. The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domain user. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?
- A. Watering-hole
- B. Insider threat
- C. Social engineering
- D. Unauthorized attacker
Answer: B
Explanation:
An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization's network, systems, or dat a. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
NEW QUESTION # 149
A company has begun labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. Which of the following security benefits do these actions provide? (Choose two.)
- A. Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization.
- B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device.
- C. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops.
- D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops.
- E. If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified.
- F. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs can provide several security benefits for a company. Two of these benefits are:
A) If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. An asset inventory sticker is a label that contains a unique identifier for a laptop, such as a serial number, a barcode, or a QR code. By associating this identifier with an employee ID, the security team can easily track and locate the owner of the laptop in case of a security incident, such as a malware infection, a data breach, or a theft. This way, the security team can notify the correct employee about the incident, and provide them with the necessary instructions or actions to take, such as changing passwords, scanning for viruses, or reporting the loss. This can help to contain the incident, minimize the damage, and prevent further escalation.
F) Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. When an employee leaves the organization, the company needs to ensure that all the company data and assets are returned or deleted from the employee's laptop. By labeling the laptop with an asset inventory sticker and associating it with an employee ID, the company can easily identify and verify the laptop that belongs to the departing employee, and perform the appropriate data backup, wipe, or transfer procedures. This can help to protect the company data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the former employee or any other party.
The other options are not correct because they are not related to the security benefits of labeling laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs.
B). The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. User awareness training is a type of security education that aims to improve the knowledge and behavior of users regarding security threats and best practices. The security team can send user awareness training to the appropriate device by using the email address, username, or IP address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. Software MFA tokens are a type of multi-factor authentication that uses a software application to generate a one-time password or a push notification for verifying the identity of a user. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens by using the device ID, phone number, or email address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. User-based firewall policies are a type of firewall rules that apply to specific users or groups of users, regardless of the device or location they use to access the network. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops by using the username, domain, or certificate of the user, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on a network or system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops by using the IP address, hostname, or MAC address of the laptop, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 17. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.4: Asset Management, video: Asset Inventory (6:12).
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?
- A. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
- B. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company's email portal.
- C. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email.
- D. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.
In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask the employee to purchase them and send the codes. This is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.
Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority. Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company's email portal and capture their credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC attacks. References = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -
2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy
NEW QUESTION # 151
Visitors to a secured facility are required to check in with a photo ID and enter the facility through an access control vestibule Which of the following but describes this form of security control?
- A. Operational
- B. Managerial
- C. Physical
- D. Technical
Answer: C
Explanation:
A physical security control is a device or mechanism that prevents unauthorized access to a physical location or asset. An access control vestibule, also known as a mantrap, is a physical security control that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens. This prevents unauthorized individuals from following authorized individuals into the facility, a practice known as piggybacking or tailgating. A photo ID check is another form of physical security control that verifies the identity of visitors. Managerial, technical, and operational security controls are not directly related to physical access, but rather to policies, procedures, systems, and processes that support security objectives. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 341; Mantrap (access control) - Wikipedia2
NEW QUESTION # 152
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
- A. Account forgery
- B. Pass-the-hash
- C. Password spraying
- D. Brute-force
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 153
Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?
- A. Critical
- B. Intellectual property
- C. Data in transit
- D. Encrypted
Answer: B
Explanation:
Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the company a competitive advantage in the market.
Therefore, these employees receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect this type of data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03.
NEW QUESTION # 154
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business-critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
- A. Exception
- B. Segmentation
- C. Risk transfer
- D. Compensating controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29
Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.1 1
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?
- A. To track the status of patching installations
- B. To find shadow IT cloud deployments
- C. To hunt for active attackers in the network
- D. To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
Answer: A
Explanation:
Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.
* Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.
* Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans.
NEW QUESTION # 156
A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
- A. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
- B. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
- C. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
- D. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
Answer: A
Explanation:
A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1
NEW QUESTION # 157
You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 158
One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update. Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
- A. Application
- B. Firmware
- C. Operating system
- D. Virtualization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.
NEW QUESTION # 159
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