[Sep-2023] CS0-002 Dumps PDF - CS0-002 Real Exam Questions Answers
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CompTIA CS0-002 certification exam is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This is an advantage for professionals who work in different environments and with different technologies. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers in the cybersecurity industry.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A vulnerability scanner has identified an out-of-support database software version running on a server. The software update will take six to nine months to complete. The management team has agreed to a one-year extended support contract with the software vendor. Which of the following BEST describes the risk treatment in this scenario?
- A. The extended support mitigates any risk associated with the software.
- B. The company is accepting the inherent risk of the vulnerability.
- C. The company is transferring the risk for the vulnerability to the software vendor.
- D. The extended support contract changes this vulnerability finding to a false positive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The company is transferring the risk for the vulnerability to the software vendor. Risk transfer is a risk treatment strategy that involves shifting the potential loss or impact of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Risk transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the organization's exposure or liability for the risk1. In this scenario, the company is transferring the risk for the vulnerability in the out-of-support database software to the software vendor by signing an extended support contract. The extended support contract means that the software vendor will continue to provide security patches and updates for the software until the company can complete the software update. This reduces the likelihood and impact of a potential exploit of the vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION # 58
During an investigation, a security analyst identified machines that are infected with malware the antivirus was unable to detect.
Which of the following is the BEST place to acquire evidence to perform data carving?
- A. The hard drive
- B. Network packets
- C. The system memory
- D. The Windows Registry
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/memory-forensics/#gref https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/d/data-carving.htm
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following describes the mam difference between supervised and unsupervised machine-learning algorithms that are used in cybersecurity applications?
- A. Supervised algorithms can be used to block attacks, while unsupervised algorithms cannot.
- B. Supervised algorithms require security analyst feedback, while unsupervised algorithms do not.
- C. Unsupervised algorithms produce more false positives. Than supervised algorithms.
- D. Unsupervised algorithms are not suitable for IDS systems, white supervised algorithms are
Answer: B
Explanation:
Supervised and unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are two types of machine-learning methods that are used in cybersecurity applications. Machine learning is a branch of artificial intelligence that enables systems to learn from data and improve their performance without explicit programming.
Supervised machine-learning algorithms are trained on labeled data, which means that each data point has a known outcome or class. Supervised algorithms learn to map input data to output data by finding patterns or rules from the training data. Supervised algorithms require security analyst feedback to provide labels for the data and evaluate the accuracy of the algorithm's predictions. Examples of supervised machine-learning algorithms are classification and regression.
Unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are trained on unlabeled data, which means that each data point has no known outcome or class. Unsupervised algorithms learn to discover hidden structures or patterns from the data without any guidance or feedback. Unsupervised algorithms do not require security analyst feedback, as they do not rely on predefined labels or outcomes. Examples of unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are clustering and anomaly detection.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A security analyst reviews SIEM logs and discovers the following error event:
Which of the following environments does the analyst need to examine to continue troubleshooting the event?
- A. WAF appliance
- B. Windows domain controller
- C. DNS server
- D. Proxy server
- E. SQL server
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Windows domain controller is a server that manages authentication and authorization for users and computers in a Windows domain. A Windows domain controller uses Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) to store information about users, groups, computers, policies, and other objects in a domain. A Windows domain controller can generate event logs that record various activities and events related to security, system, application, etc. The event log shown in the question indicates that it was generated by a Windows domain controller with an IP address of 10.0.0.1 and a hostname of DC01.
NEW QUESTION # 61
The management team has asked a senior security engineer to explore DLP security solutions for the company's growing use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following is an appropriate solution to control the sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud?
- A. IPS
- B. CASB
- C. NAC
- D. WAF
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a security solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud-based services and applications. A CASB can provide data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities for sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud, such as encryption, masking, tokenization, or redaction. A CASB can also enforce policies and compliance requirements for cloud usage, such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and reporting. The other options are not appropriate solutions for controlling sensitive data in the cloud. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/what-is-cloud-app-security
NEW QUESTION # 62
A security analyst is reviewing the following Internet usage trend report:
Which of the following usernames should the security analyst investigate further?
- A. User 2
- B. User 4
- C. User1
- D. User 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 63
A security analyst recently used Arachni to perform a vulnerability assessment of a newly developed web application. The analyst is concerned about the following output:
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this vulnerability?
- A. The developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header.
- B. The developer did not set proper cross-site request forgery protections.
- C. The developer did not implement default protections in the web application build.
- D. The developer set input validation protection on the specific field of search.aspx.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 64
A company just chose a global software company based in Europe to implement a new supply chain management solution. Which of the following would be the MAIN concern of the company?
- A. International labor laws
- B. Packet injection
- C. Loss of intellectual property
- D. Violating national security policy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 65
An organization discovers motherboards within the environment that appear to have been physically altered during the manufacturing process. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to mitigate the risk of this reoccurring?
- A. Conduct a trade study to determine if the additional risk constitutes further action.
- B. Work with IT to replace the devices with the known-altered motherboards.
- C. Perform an assessment of the firmware to determine any malicious modifications.
- D. Coordinate a supply chain assessment to ensure hardware authenticity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A supply chain assessment is a process that evaluates the security and integrity of the suppliers and vendors that provide hardware or software to an organization. It can help identify and mitigate the risk of tampered or counterfeit products that could compromise the organization's security or performance. Coordinating a supply chain assessment to ensure hardware authenticity is the best course of action to mitigate the risk of motherboards that have been physically altered during the manufacturing process. Performing an assessment of the firmware, conducting a trade study, or working with IT to replace the devices are other possible actions, but they are not as effective or proactive as coordinating a supply chain assessment. Reference: https://www.nist.gov/system/files/documents/2017/04/28/sp800-161.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 66
An organizational policy requires one person to input accounts payable and another to do accounts receivable. A separate control requires one person to write a check and another person to sign all checks greater than $5,000 and to get an additional signature for checks greater than $10,000. Which of the following controls has the organization implemented?
- A. Dual control
- B. Non-repudiaton
- C. Segregation of duties
- D. Job rotation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 67
A security analyst received a compromised workstation. The workstation's hard drive may contain evidence of criminal activities.
Which of the following is the FIRST thing the analyst must do to ensure the integrity of the hard drive while performing the analysis?
- A. Use write blockers.
- B. Install it on a different machine and explore the content.
- C. Runrm -Rcommand to create a hash.
- D. Make a copy of the hard drive.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 68
An analyst is investigating an anomalous event reported by the SOC. After reviewing the system logs, the analyst identifies an unexpected addition of a user with root-level privileges on the endpoint. Which of the following data sources will BEST help the analyst to determine whether this event constitutes an incident?
- A. Change requests
- B. Data classification matrix
- C. Threat feed
- D. Patching logs
- E. Backup logs
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 69
A cybersecurity analyst is establishing a threat hunting and intelligence group at a growing organization.
Which of the following is a collaborative resource that would MOST likely be used for this purpose?
- A. Scrum
- B. ISAC
- C. loC feeds
- D. VSS scores
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 70
During an investigation, a security analyst determines suspicious activity occurred during the night shift over the weekend. Further investigation reveals the activity was initiated from an internal IP going to an external website.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation to prevent the activity from happening in the future?
- A. An IPS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
- B. A firewall rule that will block traffic from the specific IP addresses
- C. A firewall rule that will block port 80 traffic
- D. An IDS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 71
An organization supports a large number of remote users. Which of the following is the best option to protect the data on the remote users' laptops?
- A. Require the use of VPNs.
- B. Require employees to sign an NDA.
- C. Implement a DLP solution.
- D. Use whole disk encryption.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using whole disk encryption is the best option to protect the data on the remote users' laptops. Whole disk encryption is a technique that encrypts all data on a hard disk drive, including the operating system, applications and files. Whole disk encryption can prevent unauthorized access to the data if the laptop is lost, stolen or compromised. Whole disk encryption can also protect the data from physical attacks, such as removing the hard disk and connecting it to another device .
NEW QUESTION # 72
An analyst is participating in the solution analysis process for a cloud-hosted SIEM platform to centralize log monitoring and alerting capabilities in the SOC.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for supply chain assessment when selecting a vendor?
- A. Consult with senior management for recommendations.
- B. Perform a proof of concept to identify possible solutions.
- C. Gather information from providers, including datacenter specifications and copies of audit reports.
- D. Identify SLA requirements for monitoring and logging.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 73
A cybersecurity analyst is reading a daily intelligence digest of new vulnerabilities. The type of vulnerability that should be disseminated FIRST is one that:
- A. enables data leakage but is not known to be in the environment
- B. affected the organization in the past but was probably contained and eradicated
- C. enables lateral movement and was reported as a proof of concept
- D. enables remote code execution that is being exploited in the wild
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 74
During an investigation, an analyst discovers the following rule in an executive's email client:
IF * TO <[email protected]> THEN mailto: <[email protected]> SELECT FROM 'sent' THEN DELETE FROM <[email protected]> The executive is not aware of this rule. Which of the following should the analyst do FIRST to evaluate the potential impact of this security incident?
- A. Remove the rule from the email client and change the password
- B. Use the SIEM to correlate logging events from the email server and the domain server
- C. Recommend that management implement SPF and DKIM
- D. Check the server logs to evaluate which emails were sent to <[email protected]>
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 75
An organisation is assessing risks so it can prioritize its mitigation actions. Following are the risks and their probability and impact:
Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?
- A. A, B, C, D
- B. B, C, A, D
- C. C, B, D, A
- D. A, D, B, C
- E. D, A, C, B
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following BEST identifies the appropriate use of threat intelligence as a function of detection and response?
- A. To identify weaknesses in an organization's security posture
- B. To build a network segmentation strategy
- C. To build a business security plan for an organization
- D. To identify likely attack scenarios within an organization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Threat intelligence can be used to identify likely attack scenarios within an organization based on the organization's specific vulnerabilities, assets, and threat landscape. Threat intelligence can help security teams anticipate and prepare for potential attacks, as well as detect and respond to ongoing attacks more effectively1. Threat intelligence can also provide insights into the threat actors, their motivations, and their tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)2.
NEW QUESTION # 77
In SIEM software, a security analysis selected some changes to hash signatures from monitored files during the night followed by SMB brute-force attacks against the file servers Based on this behavior, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent a more serious compromise?
- A. Collect the network traffic during the day to understand if the same activity is also occurring during business hours
- B. Check the hash signatures, comparing them with malware databases to verify if the files are infected.
- C. Fully segregate the affected servers physically in a network segment, apart from the production network.
- D. Collect all the files that have changed and compare them with the previous baseline
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first action that should be taken to prevent a more serious compromise is to check the hash signatures, comparing them with malware databases to verify if the files are infected. This will help to determine if the changes to hash signatures were caused by malicious software or legitimate updates. If the files are infected, they should be quarantined and removed from the network. Checking the hash signatures will also help to identify the type and source of the malware, which can inform further actions such as blocking malicious domains or IPs, updating antivirus signatures, or notifying users3.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of following allows Secure Boot to be enabled?
- A. eFuse
- B. PAM
- C. MSM
- D. UEFI
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 79
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about new privacy regulations that apply to the company. The CISO has tasked a security analyst with finding the proper control functions to verity that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?
- A. Automate the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data
- B. Use encryption first and then hash the data at regular, defined times.
- C. Replicate the data sets at regular intervals and continuously compare the copies for unauthorized changes.
- D. Use a DLP product to monitor the data sets for unauthorized edits and changes.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 80
To prioritize the morning's work, an analyst is reviewing security alerts that have not yet been investigated.
Which of the following assets should be investigated FIRST?
- A. The workstation of a developer who is installing software on a web server
- B. An accounting supervisor's laptop that is connected to the VPN
- C. A new test web server that is in the process of initial installation
- D. The laptop of the vice president that is on the corporate LAN
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 81
A company uses a managed IDS system, and a security analyst has noticed a large volume of brute force password attacks originating from a single IP address. The analyst put in a ticket with the IDS provider, but no action was taken for 24 hours, and the attacks continued. Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the scenario described?
- A. Draft a new MOU to include response incentive fees.
- B. Reengineer the BPA to meet the organization's needs.
- C. Implement an MOA to improve vendor responsiveness.
- D. Modify the SLA to support organizational requirements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 82
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