Full 1z0-062 Practice Test and 380 unique questions with explanations waiting just for you!
Oracle Database Dumps 1z0-062 Exam for Full Questions - Exam Study Guide
NEW QUESTION 149
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)
- A. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
- B. Oracle Data Pump export operations invoked from the clients that are connected remotely by using a connection string, create Data Pump files on the client file system.
- C. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independent of Data Pump clients.
- D. A directory object must exist and a user performing an EXPDP or IMPDP operation must have read and write permission on that directory object.
- E. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed to move data across different database releases.
Answer: C,D,E
NEW QUESTION 150
In your database, the RESOURCE_LIMIT parameter is set to TRUE.
You create the profile:
Which two statements are true about users and their sessions that are subject to this profile? (Choose two.)
- A. The PASSWORD_LIFE_TIME value is ignored because of the unlimited value of PASSWORD_REUSE_MAX.
- B. The CPU_PER_CALL is ignored in the user sessions because of the unlimited value of CPU_PER_CALL
- C. These users can never reuse a password
- D. In each user session, the limit for LOGICAL_READS_PER_SESSION in the same as defined in the DEFAULT profile.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION 151
Which three statements are true about space usage alerts?
- A. Alerts are issued only when the critical threshold for space available in a tablespace is breached.
- B. Database alerts can provide warnings about low space availability at both tablespace and segment levels.
- C. A newly created locally managed tablespace is automatically assigned the default threshold values defined for a
database. - D. The sum of active extents and allocated user quotas is considered to compute space usage for an undo tablespace.
- E. Alerts are not issued for locally managed tablespaces that are offline or in read-only mode.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm#ADMIN10120
NEW QUESTION 152
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases (PDB plans) in a multitenant container database (CDB)?
- A. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
- B. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups across all PDBs in the CDB.
- C. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an equal degree of the resource share of that PDB.
- D. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups based on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the consumer groups in the PDB plan.
- E. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically calculated.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated equally.
* In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans.
The functionality is similar except for the following differences:
/Non-CDB Database
Multi-level resource plans
Up to 32 consumer groups
Subplans
/PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only
Up to 8 consumer groups
(not B) No subplans
NEW QUESTION 153
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE"
clause.
What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause?
- A. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
- B. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
- C. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.
- D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
- E. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do
not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never
contain PDBs.
D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB.
The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:
Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-CDB into
a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within this CDB.
NEW QUESTION 154
You have successfully taken a database backup by using the command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS BACKUPSET DATABASE;
Now you execute this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 DATABASE;
What is the outcome?
- A. It first takes an incremental level 0 backup and then an incremental level 1 backup.
- B. It fails because an incremental level 0 backup does not exist.
- C. It takes a backup of blocks that have been formatted since the last full database backup.
- D. It fails because an incremental level 1 backup always searches for an image copy as level 0 backup.
- E. It takes an incremental level 0 backup of the database.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14192/bkup004.htm (4.4.1.2)
NEW QUESTION 155
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)
- A. A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job definition.
- B. A job is specified as part of a program specification.
- C. A job may get started automatically when a window opens.
- D. A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
- E. A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
- F. A schedule can be specified to a single job only.
- G. A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object.
Answer: A,C,E,G
Explanation:
Explanation
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schedover.htm
NEW QUESTION 156
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)
- A. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.
- B. The PDB must be dosed.
- C. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
- D. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
- E. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
- F. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB's datafiles can remain in place.
References:
NEW QUESTION 157
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE; SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id); Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
- B. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
- C. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.
- D. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for query execution plan.
- E. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11G has a new feature called Invisible Indexes. An invisible index is invisible to the optimizer as default.
Using this feature we can test a new index without effecting the execution plans of the existing sql statements or we can test the effect of dropping an index without dropping it.
NEW QUESTION 158
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of complex queries. Currently, the database is running with peak workload. You want to analyze some of the most resource-intensive statements cached in the library cache.
What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?
- A. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
- B. SQL Access Advisor
- C. SQL Performance Analyzer
- D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report
- E. SQL Tuning Advisor
Answer: B
Explanation:
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28314/tdpdw_perform.htm
#TDPDW00813
NEW QUESTION 159
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases (PDB
plans) in a multitenant container database (CDB)?
- A. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
- B. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an equal degree of
the resource share of that PDB. - C. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups across all PDBs
in the CDB. - D. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups based on the
shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the consumer groups in the PDB plan. - E. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically calculated.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated equally.
*
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans.
The functionality is similar except for the following differences:
/ Non-CDB Database
Multi-level resource plans
Up to 32 consumer groups
Subplans
/ PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only
Up to 8 consumer groups
(not B) No subplans
NEW QUESTION 160
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management? (Choose three.)
- A. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
- B. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
- C. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
- D. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
- E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.
Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.
References:
NEW QUESTION 161
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)
- A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
- B. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
- C. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
- D. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
- E. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
- F. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
- G. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
Answer: B,F,G
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces. It can also contain other user created tablespaces in it.
* There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional temporary tablespaces in individual PDBs.
D:
* There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
* A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to another. Normally, a log switch occurs when the current redo log file is completely filled and writing must continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when a database instance is restarted after a failure.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs.
* High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share its memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture.
Not C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
Not F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
NEW QUESTION 162
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
1.A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
2.A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
3.User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
4.Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days.
How would you accomplish these requirements?
- A. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
- B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE
- C. by granting a secure application role to the users
- D. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.
- E. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
Answer: C
Explanation:
You can design your applications to automatically grant a role to the user who is
trying to log in, provided the user meets criteria that you specify. To do so, you create a secure
application role, which is a role that is associated with a PL/SQL procedure (or PL/SQL package
that contains multiple procedures). The procedure validates the user: if the user fails the
validation, then the user cannot log in. If the user passes the validation, then the procedure grants
the user a role so that he or she can use the application. The user has this role only as long as he
or she is logged in to the application. When the user logs out, the role is revoked.
Incorrect:
Not B: REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT specifies whether remote clients will be authenticated with the
value of the OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX parameter.
Not C, not E: SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS specifies the number of authentication
attempts that can be made by a client on a connection to the server process. After the specified
number of failure attempts, the connection will be automatically dropped by the server process.
Not D: REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE specifies whether Oracle checks for a password file.
Values:
shared
One or more databases can use the password file. The password file can contain SYS as well as
non-SYS users.
exclusive
The password file can be used by only one database. The password file can contain SYS as well
as non-SYS users.
none
Oracle ignores any password file. Therefore, privileged users must be authenticated by the
operating system.
Note:
The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter is deprecated. It is retained for backward compatibility
only.
NEW QUESTION 163
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?
- A. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown using the immediate option.
- B. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.
- C. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the abort option.
- D. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using the abort option.
- E. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by using the immediate option or the abort option.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
References:
NEW QUESTION 164
Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:
Which statement is true?
- A. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
- B. Only SGA components are sized automatically.
- C. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
- D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 165
A database uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as database storage, which has a diskgroup, DATA1, which is created as follows:
What happens when the FAILGRP1 failure group is corrupted?
- A. Data in the FAILGRP1 failure group is moved to the FAILGRP2 failure group and rebalancing is started.
- B. ASM does not mirror any data and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the FAILGRP2 failure group.
- C. Transactions that are using the diskgroup fail.
- D. Mirroring of allocation units occurs within the FAILGRP2 failure group.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 166
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)?
- A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.
- B. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.
- C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
- D. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
- E. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
E: Performance is improved by load balancing across multiple network interfaces (if available).
Note:
*To enable Direct NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) library with one that supports Direct NFS Client.
Incorrect: Not A: Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any operating system level caches and eliminates any operating system write-ordering locks Not B:
*To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular NFS mounts.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP). Not D: Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all supported database platforms - even those that don't support NFS natively, like Windows.
Note:
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP). Direct NFS is built directly into the database kernel - just like ASM which is mainly used when using DAS or SAN storage.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files than traditional NFS clients.
NEW QUESTION 167
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
- A. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
- B. Oracle Data Pump
- C. Oracle Real Application Security
- D. Oracle Database Vault
- E. Oracle Label Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 168
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE,
CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table's indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?
- A. Online Table Redefinition.
- B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
- C. Oracle Data Pump.
- D. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.
- E. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the
availability of the table. The mechanism is called online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a
substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.
* To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
* By key-Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary keys are unique
keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and
after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.
* By rowid-Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the
post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the
redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of redefinition automatically sets this
column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE ... DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.
You cannot use this method on index-organized tables.
Note:
* When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables
you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data
source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the CREATE INDEX statement,
re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use,
thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.
NEW QUESTION 169
You execute the commands:
SQL>CREATE USER sidney
IDENTIFIED BY out_standing1
DEFAULT TABLESPACE users
QUOTA 10M ON users
TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp
ACCOUNT UNLOCK;
SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO Sidney;
Which two statements are true?
- A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
- B. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no space quota
is specified for the temp tablespace. - C. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects in the users
tablespace. - D. The user sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is default.
- E. The user sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION 170
Examine the command:
Which statement is true?
- A. The tablespace, TEST1, can contain a maximum of one data file.
- B. Allocated and free extents are tracked using bitmaps.
- C. The data file, TEST01.DBF, can be auto extended to a maximum size of 5M.
- D. Segment free space is tracked in the data dictionary.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 171
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management? (Choose three.)
- A. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
- B. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
- C. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
- D. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
- E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.
Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.
References:
NEW QUESTION 172
Examine the parameter for your database instance:
You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop
join was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution
plan:
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.
- A. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
- B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
- C. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.
- D. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 173
......
Authentic Best resources for 1z0-062 Online Practice Exam: https://www.prepawayete.com/Oracle/1z0-062-practice-exam-dumps.html
Get the superior quality 1z0-062 Dumps Questions from PrepAwayETE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1kwyDw8kGZ7XRZRHvG8RrlOAsV_5V9XZt