100% PASS RATE CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certified Exam DUMP with 332 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 91
Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is identifiable in this exhibit?
- A. local service in the Windows Services Manager
- B. Windows PowerShell verb
- C. Windows Registry hive
- D. Trusted Root Certificate store on the local machine
Answer: C
Explanation:
The exhibit shows "HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE," which is a Windows Registry hive. The registry is a database used to store low-level settings for the operating system and for applications that opt to use the registry. The other options are not related to the exhibit, as they are either a part of the Windows Certificate Manager, a naming convention for Windows PowerShell commands, or a component of the Windows Services Manager. References := Cisco Cybersecurity
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/sysinfo/registry-hives
https://ldapwiki.com/wiki/HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE#:~:text=HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE%20Windows%20
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which metric is used to capture the level of access needed to launch a successful attack?
- A. user interaction
- B. attack vector
- C. attack complexity
- D. privileges required
Answer: D
Explanation:
Privileges required is a metric in the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) that measures the level of access needed to launch a successful attack. The higher the privileges required, the lower the severity of the vulnerability. The privileges required metric has three possible values: none, low, and high. None means that the attacker does not need any privileges to exploit the vulnerability. Low means that the attacker needs privileges that provide basic user capabilities. High means that the attacker needs privileges that provide significant or administrative control over the target. Reference: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) - Cisco, page 2-17; 200-201 CBROPS - Cisco, exam topic 1.3.c
NEW QUESTION # 93
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email.
What is the state of this file?
- A. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.
- B. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.
- C. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.
- D. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 94
How is NetFlow different than traffic mirroring?
- A. Traffic mirroring costs less to operate than NetFlow
- B. NetFlow collects metadata and traffic mirroring clones data
- C. NetFlow generates more data than traffic mirroring
- D. Traffic mirroring impacts switch performance and NetFlow does not
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Security Monitoring
NEW QUESTION # 95
Refer to the exhibit.
What information is depicted?
- A. NetFlow data
- B. network discovery event
- C. IIS data
- D. IPS event data
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 96
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 97
A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event?
- A. weaponization
- B. reconnaissance
- C. delivery
- D. installation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Delivery is the fourth phase of the cyber kill chain, which is a model to describe the stages of a cyberattack.
Delivery refers to the transmission of the weaponized payload to the target system, such as via email attachments, web links, USB drives, or network connections. Delivery does not necessarily imply successful installation or execution of the payload, which are subsequent phases of the kill chain. References
:= Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) - Cisco, page 31.
NEW QUESTION # 98
An employee reports that someone has logged into their system and made unapproved changes, files are out of order, and several documents have been placed in the recycle bin. The security specialist reviewed the system logs, found nothing suspicious, and was not able to determine what occurred. The software is up to date; there are no alerts from antivirus and no failed login attempts. What is causing the lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack?
- A. The threat actor gained access to the system by known credentials.
- B. The threat actor used the teardrop technique to confuse and crash login services.
- C. The threat actor used a dictionary-based password attack to obtain credentials.
- D. The threat actor used an unknown vulnerability of the operating system that went undetected.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack is caused by the threat actor gaining access to the system by known credentials. This means that the threat actor either obtained the employee's username and password through phishing, social engineering, or other means, or used a compromised account that had legitimate access to the system. This would explain why there were no suspicious logs, alerts, or failed login attempts, as the threat actor appeared to be a normal user. Reference: https://learningnetworkstore.cisco.com/on-demand-e-learning/understanding-cisco-cybersecurity-operations-fundamentals-cbrops-v1-0/CSCU-LP-CBROPS-V1-028093.html (Module 2, Lesson 2.1.2)
NEW QUESTION # 99
What is a scareware attack?
- A. gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it
- B. inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors
- C. using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials
- D. overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scareware is a type of malware attack that tricks users into believing their computer is infected with a virus, prompting them to download and pay for fake antivirus software. The attack often uses popup windows with flashing colors (D) to create a sense of urgency and scare the user into taking immediate action.
NEW QUESTION # 100
When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows the user to make the data incomprehensible without a specific key, certificate, or password?
- A. encryption
- B. fragmentation
- C. pivoting
- D. stenography
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption allows the user to make the data incomprehensible without a specific key, certificate, or password.
Encryption is a method of transforming data into a format that only authorized parties can access. Encryption can be used to protect data in transit or at rest from unauthorized access or modification. References:
https://learningnetworkstore.cisco.com/on-demand-e-learning/understanding-cisco-cybersecurity-operations-fund (Module 4, Lesson 4.1.1)
NEW QUESTION # 101
An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?
- A. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.
- B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.
- C. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.
- D. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The discrepancy described suggests that the system had a Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) installed. HIDS are designed to monitor and analyze the internals of a computing system for signs of intrusion and policy violations. While they can detect unauthorized activities, they do not take direct action to stop an attack; this is typically the role of an intrusion prevention system. Therefore, the alert was generated, but no mitigation action was taken because the HIDS does not have the capability to intervene.
NEW QUESTION # 102 
Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the element names from the left onto the corresponding pieces of the PCAP file on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 103
An analyst discovers that a legitimate security alert has been dismissed.
Which signature caused this impact on network traffic?
- A. true positive
- B. false positive
- C. true negative
- D. false negative
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 104
Refer to the exhibit.
This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?
- A. parameter manipulation
- B. blind SQL injection
- C. command injection
- D. heap memory corruption
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?
- A. tunneling
- B. load balancing
- C. encryption
- D. NAT/PAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) and PAT (Port Address Translation) are technologies that modify the IP address information in packet headers as they pass through a router or firewall, making it difficult to trace the communication back to the originating end-device.
NEW QUESTION # 106
What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?
- A. web of trust
- B. trusted certificate authorities
- C. central key management server
- D. registration authority data
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of public key infrastructure (PKI), a trusted certificate authority (CA) is responsible for issuing digital certificates that verify a digital entity's identity on the internet. The CA acts as a trusted third party between the user (in this case, tom0411976943) and the recipient (dan1968754032), ensuring that the public keys are indeed who they claim to be. The CA verifies the identity of the users and then issues a certificate containing the public key and a variety of other identification information. The trusted CA can then vouch for the authenticity of each user to the other.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is investigating suspicious network activity by analyzing captured traffic. An engineer notices abnormal behavior and discovers that the default user agent is present in the headers of requests and data being transmitted What is occurring?
- A. cache bypassing attack: attacker is sending requests for noncacheable content
- B. indicators of data exfiltration HTTP requests must be plain text
- C. garbage flood attack attacker is sending garbage binary data to open ports
- D. indicators of denial-of-service attack due to the frequency of requests
Answer: A
Explanation:
The presence of a default user agent in the headers of requests and data being transmitted suggests a cache bypassing attack. In this scenario, the attacker is likely requesting noncacheable content to avoid detection by caching mechanisms that could otherwise identify and block malicious traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Refer to the exhibit.
This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?
- A. parameter manipulation
- B. blind SQL injection
- C. command injection
- D. heap memory corruption
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 109
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Cisco 200-201 exam is a multiple-choice exam that consists of 95-105 questions. 200-201 exam is timed, and candidates have 120 minutes to complete it. 200-201 exam is administered by Pearson VUE and can be taken at one of their testing centers or online. To pass the exam, candidates must score at least 750 out of 1000.
Cisco 200-201 exam, also known as Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals, is a certification exam that tests the candidate's knowledge and skills in the field of cybersecurity operations. 200-201 exam is designed for individuals who are seeking to enhance their career in cybersecurity operations or looking to validate their skills in the field. It is an entry-level exam that covers the fundamental principles of cybersecurity operations, including security concepts, network infrastructure, and incident response.
Cisco 200-201 exam covers a range of topics, including cybersecurity concepts, security policies and procedures, network security, threat analysis, and incident response. Candidates are expected to have a good understanding of these topics and be able to apply their knowledge in real-world scenarios. 200-201 exam consists of multiple-choice questions and simulations that test the candidate's ability to identify and respond to security threats.
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